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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 28.06.2025 00:54

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

There's no rule.

Do you think that Airbnb is destroying neighborhoods throughout the US?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

What does it mean when someone leaves something in your house, your room to be exact, and when you tell them, they say they left it there on purpose?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

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Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.